Hi Experts
I want to make vendor payment through F110. Vendor has a debit balance, I have given advance to vendor.
How vendor will be paid through automatic payment program (F110).
Prompt response will be appreciated.
Thanks
Request clarification before answering.
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Dear Muhammad,
First of all, check your customising settings as per Abdullah's answer.
When you post a down payment, lets say 10, that means you post to an alternative supplier reconciliation account, not the normal vendor reconciliation account.
Then you post the invoice, lets say for 100. After that, there is one more step, in F-54 clearing, where you have to clear the down payment with the invoice. I don't know if you have done that. So, in F-54 clearing, enter your invoice number and click on Process down pmts pushbutton.
This is vital, because your down payment is transfered from the alternative reconciliation account (SGL) to the normal vendor reconciliation account. That is because after you posted the invoice, the downpayment is not a down payment anymore but a proper payment, and therefore it should be transfered to the normal reconciliaton account.
Finally run F110, the system should pay the balance for 90.
Regards
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if $10 is already paid then do invoice for $90 then only $90 would be paid by F110.
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Hi Sreenivasulu
Thanks for your explanation.
Kindly tell me one thing, Is there any way to pay vendor only 90 through F110?
Your response will be appreciated.
Thanks
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Hi Muhammad,
sorry for the confusion. I stand corrected.
SAP behavior is perfect in this case.
1. your advance payment request is for 10 and invoice is for 100, F110 pays 110
2. you advance payment is 10 and invoice is 100, F110 pays 100
If you want pay only 100 to vendor in total, then 10 for advance payment and 90 for invoice.
all I am saying is Vendor invoice is not inclusive of advance payment. it's always advance payment+vendor invoice is what vendor gets.
Thank you,
Sree.
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Hi Sreenivasulu
Consider your example, i paid advance 10 and invoice is 100. when i pay through F110 it should pay only 90 not 100 because i have already paid my vendor 10. In my case it is paying 100 instead of paying 90.
Kindly tell what will be the solution.
thanks
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Hi Muhammad,
this may have happened:
Let's say your advance payment is 10 and your invoice is 100, now you are trying to pay the vendor 90 using APP. it's definitely possible but in your scenario, your FB60/MIRO invoices may not be due before next APP run and not picked in this run. hence your total is a debit balance for vendor for this proposal. Just check the due dates of all the invoices, in app parameters the next APP run and then try to execute it.
Even after all these checks if the total balance is still debit on Vendor, you don't need to pay :).
or if you still want to pay, exclude one or more debit invoices from APP using free selection while entering parameters.
Thank you,
Sree.
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Hi Manjunath v
F-37 is for Customers. My point is that I gave my vendor advance through F-48. Then i post Vendor Invoice through FB60. When i make payment through F110 (Automatic Payment Program), Vendor is not paying by that. Vendor is showing in exceptional list showing debit balance.
How can i pay in the above case?
Seeking towards your reply.
Thanks and regards.
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Hi ,
You need to create Down payment request using F-37 and exculde the vendor debit balance document from F110 selecton parameter using document.
Thanks
Manjunatha
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