Regarding Casting of objects

[arpitgoyal]

Currently ?= operator can only used to cast objects from one form to another. If I have value of type Boolean or String and I need to cast it to Object type what is the work around?

Do I need to create class for each type (boolean, string etc) or is there a work around to this?

Regards,

Arpit.

[Former Member]

Hi,

I think there is an easy way.

I created this code snippet. Hope this helps.

====

data : xx(20) type c,

dd type ref to data,

dd1 type ref to String.

Field-Symbols : <fs> type any.

xx = 'ABC'.

CREATE DATA dd type String.

ASSIGN dd->* to <fs>.

<fs> = xx.

dd1 ?= dd.

====

Regards,

Saurabh

[arpitgoyal]

Thank you so much. It solved my problem big time.

And thanks for your time.

Regards,

Arpit.

[Former Member]

Hi,

Report xyz.

DATA txt(8) TYPE c VALUE '19980606'.

DATA mytype(1) VALUE 'X'.

FIELD-SYMBOLS <fs> TYPE ANY.

ASSIGN txt TO <fs>.

WRITE / <fs>.

SKIP.

ASSIGN txt TO <fs> CASTING TYPE d.

WRITE / <fs>.

ASSIGN txt TO <fs> CASTING TYPE (mytype).

WRITE / <fs>.