on 02-01-2019 6:09 AM
Hi All.....
Below is one of the example for GR and IR getting posted for FA related PO in SAP
In this case, because of the exchange rate difference in separate GR and IR dates -0.59 getting as a difference in LC2 ( in this case USD) and the same getting posted in to Capex 92000000 account automatically. Since its not part of my asset cost is that correct to post in the capex account or do we need to consider this as FX gain or Loss account. The same logic applied in all the other P&L accounts too. Is this approach is correct or do we need to change the mapping to FX gain or loss account.
Anyone please explain the logic behind this mapping and if we have any IFRS standard rule or something for the above validation.
Thanks
Havin Vettath
HI Havin,
The system behave correctly as it is the actual asset cost for parallel currency depreciation area.
Thanks.
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