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Loading values of an attribute to an attribute

Former Member
0 Kudos

Currently, I am loading master data that doesn't contain 0COUNTRY. I want to fill the 0COUNTRY attribute value with the value that is contained in a different infoobject. So, in the update rules I have referenced the attribute of the other infoobject.

However, when I execute the load, the value of 0COUNTRY doesn't show. Any advice? In the update rules does the application not know which value to load?

For example my scenario is as follows:

IO1 - master data that contains IO2 as an attribute

IO2 - master data that contains IO1 as an attribute

when loading IO2 I want to fill the 0COUNTRY value with the corresponding IO1 0COUNTRY. FYI, the value of IO1 as an attribute to IO2 is being loaded simultaneously.

Thanks,

Dave

Accepted Solutions (1)

Accepted Solutions (1)

udayabhanupattabhiram_cha
Active Contributor
0 Kudos

Hi David:

Now its clear.

No, having 0country as navigational attribute doesn't effect it.

Is 0country time-dependent attribute of IO1?

I guess you are in DEV, try ABAP Code just to test the logic to make sure that IO1 has a value in the record.

Also, go to IO1 Master Data and 1) do an attribute change run 2) make sute the P table does have values of 0country.

Good luck,

Ram C.

Message was edited by: Ram Chamarthy

Answers (3)

Answers (3)

udayabhanupattabhiram_cha
Active Contributor
0 Kudos

Hi:

In this situation you do do that:

IO1 has attribute AT1.

IOs needs AT1.

Here, if you have IO1 in your InfoSOurce of IOs, then you can use the COde for "Master Data Attribute OF IO1" in your Update Rules for IOs.

If you don't have IO1 in your InfoSOurce of IOs, you need to write Custom Code based on some rules.

Hope its clear.

Ram C.

Message was edited by: Ram Chamarthy

Message was edited by: Ram Chamarthy

Former Member
0 Kudos

Ram,

Yes, I have done this and assigned "master data of". however, when i execute the load the value doesn't populate. If the 0COUNTRY attribute is navigational in IO1, does this affect it in anyway?

I have done this before but this time I cannot get it working properly. Am I missing something here? It should be as simple as configuring a few clicks.

Thanks,

Dave

udayabhanupattabhiram_cha
Active Contributor
0 Kudos

Hi David:

Just give the names of IOs more clearly.

Don't give dummy names as its confusing to me.

Ram C.

Former Member
0 Kudos

Hi Dave,

It is a little strange the scenario you are describing with relation:

IO1 - master data that contains IO2 as an attribute

IO2 - master data that contains IO1 as an attribute

Or IO1 is an attribute of IO2 or viceversa, you can not have both situation apart 1:1 relationship beetween IO1 and IO2.

If you have 0COUNTRY in IO1 like attribute and you want to upload simply 0COUNTRY you must set IO1 like DataProvider and then feed 0COUNTRY with corresponding value. Let me know if it is not functioning.

If you have 0COUNTRY in IO1 like attribute and you want to feed 0COUNTRY like attribute of IO2 you can not, apart when IO1 and IO2 have same values, because system first check corresponding beetween IO1 and IO2 in Update Roules to upload also 0COUNTRY.

Let me know please.

Ciao.

Riccardo.

Former Member
0 Kudos

So you are saying that I cannot load the value of 0country from IO1 into IO2's attribute within an update rule?

I understand about making IO1 a data source so I can upload it's values, however I would like to do this in the update rule in conjunction with IO2's load. I thought there was a way to reference a different infoobject and take it's attribute value and load that during the update rule phase.

Please advise.