Is this situation "indirect access"?

[former_member1305455]

Hi,

In my company we are struggling with this matter of indirect access.
The situation is as follows:

We have a job process into SAP ERP which generates data that is exported to a csv file that is deposited into a FTP.
This process is run by a licenssed user and it's scheduled.

Then, aferwards with another non-SAP system we take that csv and put that data into another database on claud. With this data we take info from another non-SAP system and run some process in this non-SAP system to compare the data from SAP ERP and the data from the non-SAP system.

After all this, the result data is consumed by a Business Intelligent software showing this compared information.

In no case, afterwards we go to SAP again to modify or do something with this previously exported data.

If I see some SAP official documentation I see that is not indirect access that needs to have a license:
https://www.sap.com/documents/2019/05/eadfa9d2-4a7d-0010-87a3-c30de2ffd8ff.html

"Indirect Static Read is a scenario in which information has been exported from an SAP sys - tem (excluding SAP Business Warehouse or any third-party runtime database) to a non-SAP sys - tem pursuant to a predefined query that meets the criteria listed below. SAP’s policy is that the use of such exported data in third-party non-SAP systems does not need to be licensed, as long as all of the criteria listed below for Indirect Static Read are met.
• Was created by an individual licensed to use the SAP ERP system from which the information is being exported
• Runs automatically on a scheduled basis, and
• The use of such exported information by the non-SAP systems and/or their users does not result in any updates to and/or trigger any processing capabilities of the SAP ERP system"

And from my point of view I see that is exactly our case, but some people in our organization do not think the same.

Can you advice?

Thanks a million!! 🙂

[former_member34]

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Many thanks!